I am a 39 year old male and about three months ago I began having the dreaded fasciculations for the first time ever. At first, I could not feel them, but now they are to the point that they drive me batty. I don't seem to have any weakness, but my legs do get cramps somewhat and feel "tired" at times. When the fascis started I was under an great deal of stress. I have them the worst in my calves and feet and now sometimes I get them in my thighs and buttocks. My GP wrote it off as stress, but I decided to go to a neuro/muscular specialist on my own. About two weeks ago I had the neuro/muscular exam and that was completely normal, no weakness. On Friday I had an EMG and a nerve conductivity test (I think that is what it is called). The tests showed fasciculations in both legs from the knees down to the feet. And one fibrillation or fibrillation potential (not sure what the difference is) showed up in one spot on one leg. At first the doctor seemed concerned, but then when he didn't find any others he said he felt the fibrillation was the result of injury since I am a runner. My upper body (above the knees) was completely clean, no fasciculations even. He said that *** was extremely unlikely, but that he couldn't rule it out for certain. He said the fact that I have no weakness and no atrophy the likelyhood of this being an early stage of *** was unlikely and that it would be a very unusual presentation. My problem is I wanted to walk out of there with a completely clean EMG and I feel like it wasn't. The doctor wants to do a MRI of my lower spine to rule out a slipped disc or the possibility of a tumor near the spine. My question is can one isolated fibrillation be caused by a previous injury? I trust the specialist, he interned at the Mayo Clinic and seems very knowledgeable. Thank you for reading my rather long post, by the way I am a first timer here. CK